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The word "Chinese" doesn't always refer to the same kind of Chinese language!
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Full video linked under username🎯
Where is it?!
@@laoconggeunder his username (when you close the comments). Otherwise, search for “Langfocus — The Sinitc languages”
@@laocongge Look at the Short itself. You should the Langfocus logo near the bottom left. The link says “Chinese – The Sinitic Languages” – it’s below the Langfocus logo. And to the left of the link there’s an arrowhead pointing towards it.
And if you’re not watching in the Shorts feed, you can just search for “Langfocus Chinese” and you’ll find it. It’s easy. It’s called “Chinese – The Sinitic Languages”.
@Langfocus
You forgot Cantonese which distinctly can be classified as a completely differenr language, because it does not share the syntax of the rest of the languages.
Most of the chinese languages are SVO.
Cantonese is SOV.
If Cantonese can be grouped with this, you may as well call Korean and Japanese a dialect of Chinese.
I am of the camp that says that there are 14 different languages in china, with multiple dialects and cross-dialects.
Interestingly, the current standard Mandarin comes from a small district call Luanping. The majority of the population there are Manchus. So, Standard Mandarin is the combination of Mandarin in the Ming dynasty and Manchurian features.
Chinese is not one language. Mandarin, Cantonese, Wu, Hakka are all different chinese languages and not dialects of Mandarin
When someone says chinese, he mainly refers to Mandarin
Just like Indian languages where there is no language called “Indian”, there are many different Indian languages where Hindi is the most Spoken one
That is true, but I believe it’s not a 1 to 1 analogous situation with India since Chinese languages are far more similar to each other than Indian languages. China had one unifying written language for its entire premodern history, namely classical Chinese, and this written language highly influenced all of the Chinese languages over time. The most analogous situation in India would be how Sanskrit has affected all Indian languages, but my understanding is that Sanskrit was not as consistent or unifying over time in its influence especially because of Mughal rule, where Persian was the dynastic language for centuries. While phonology differs greatly from language to language in China, the vocabulary is relatively similar since Chinese people historically read Chinese characters in their local dialect, and a lot of dialect vocabulary came from classical Chinese.
@@默-c1r hanzi could be considered a sepparate language, just like sign languages are, so it would be better to say that using hanzi as (more or less) a lingua franca, made it influence the spoken languages of the different peoples of China.
What compels you to restate what he already explained very well in the video?
@@rikospostmodernlife That’s not quite the case. Hanzi are not a language but rather a script. For proof: modern Mandarin speakers write in Hanzi but need to be taught to read Classical Chinese, even though Classical Chinese uses the same Hanzi script. The lingua franca in East Asia for millenia was classical Chinese, which has its own grammar and vocab that is distinct from all Chinese dialects. The pronunciation of Classical Chinese varied based on the speaker’s dialect, but vocabulary and grammar were consistent, and both the vocab and grammar from Classical Chinese constantly influenced the dialects.
thank for pointing out the fact that most people use the word mandarin to mean standard mandarin, but in fact there are many dialect of mandarin with varies of mutual intelligent ability
@m420-nd1if what is niuhai
the good thing is, they all can read and understand the hanzi.
Not from Beijing but Changde in Hebei, common misconception 😢
You have some conceptual errors in your understanding here that is a bit inaccurate. Some of this comes down to the term “Mandarin” which you call both “putonghua” and “guanhua”. In Chinese, these are actually two different though related linguistic categories.
“Guanhua” refers to the “official speech” used in the Ming and Qin period spoken by government officials who were mostly from the South, but spent some time in Beijing, so they would speak classical Chinese with a southern accented Beijing pronunciation. That’s “Guanhua”.
“Putonghua” or “Common speech” refers to a standardized language from the 20th century based off of northern dialects, especially Beijing dialects, and is the official lingua franca of the PRC and ROC as well as common in Singapore and Malaysia; however, with considerable differences in accent and lexicon but mostly mutually intelligible.
Guanhua and putonghua are conceptually different, but in English we use Mandarin to refer to them both, because they are related (with some key differences) and the people who spoke them (government officials and elites) remained largely the same.
Also, Yue in putonghua is pronounced /Üə/ not /’ju.e/
I don’t think that’s really the confusion. Nobody speaks exactly as the book dictates so if someone speaks Mandarin, we’re saying they speak any of those intelligible with each other, whether it be Beijing, Taiwan, or various places.
Guanhua on other hand, while being a branch term also apparently has a high degree of internal intelligibility so it’s not strange to just call that Mandarin as well. Some peeps use Mandarinic, but that’s not common outside certain communities.
Having lived in Taiwan for 2 years, I have never heard a single Taiwanese person call Mandarin 普通話. 國語, 華語 and 中文 almost exclusively used, and I believe the government only refers to Mandarin as 國語 as opposed to 台語, 客家語 and the indigenous languages.
Nothing surprising, 1 bil people would have different dialects / languages.